fundamental question for DSP experts (regarding FFT, IFFT)

Question

Hello, I'm not a DSP expert, but I understand that there are two ways that I can apply a discrete time-domain filter to a discrete time-domain waveform. The first is to convolve them in the time domain, and the second is to take the FFT of both, multiply both complex spectrums, and take IFFT of the result. One key difference in these methods is the second approach is subject to circular convolution.

As an example, if the filter and waveforms are both N points long, the first approach (i.e. convolution) produces a result that is N+N-1 points long, where the first half of this response is the filter filling up and the 2nd half is the filter emptying. To get a steady-state response, the filter needs to have fewer points than the waveform to be filtered.

Continuing this example with the second approach, and assuming the discrete time-domain waveform data is all real (not complex), the FFT of the filter and the waveform both produce FFTs of N points long. Multiplying both spectrums IFFT'ing the result produces a time-domain result also N points long. Here the response where the filter fills up and empties overlap each other in the time domain, and there's no steady state response. This is the effect of circular convolution. To avoid this, typically the filter size would be smaller than the waveform size and both would be zero-padded to allow space for the frequency convolution to expand in time after IFFT of the product of the two spectrums.

My question is, I often see work in the literature from well-established experts/companies where they have a discrete (real) time-domain waveform (N points), they FFT it, multiply it by some filter (also N points), and IFFT the result for subsequent processing. My naive thinking is this result should contain no steady-state response and thus should contain artifacts from the filter filling/emptying that would lead to errors in interpreting the resulting data, but I must be missing something. Under what circumstances can this be a valid approach?

Any insight would be greatly appreciated

Answer 1

Although there will be artifacts from assuming that a rectangular window of data is periodic at the FFT aperture width, which is one interpretation of what circular convolution does without sufficient zero padding, the differences may or may not be large enough to swamp the data analysis in question.

Answer 2

The basic problem is not about zero padding vs the assumed periodicity, but that Fourier analysis decomposes the signal into sine waves which, at the most basic level, are assumed to be infinite in extent. Both approaches are correct in that the IFFT using the full FFT will return the exact input waveform, and both approaches are incorrect in that using less than the full spectrum can lead to effects at the edges (that usually extend a few wavelengths). The only difference is in the details of what you assume fills in the rest of infinity, not in whether you are making an assumption.

Back to your first paragraph: Usually, in DSP, the biggest problem I run into with FFTs is that they are non-causal, and for this reason I often prefer to stay in the time domain, using, for example, FIR and IIR filters.

Update:

In the question statement, the OP correctly points out some of the problems that can arise when using FFTs to filter signals, for example, edge effects, that can be particularly problematic when doing a convolution that is comparable in the length (in the time domain) to the sampled waveform. It's important to note though that not all filtering is done using FFTs, and in the paper cited by the OP, they are not using FFT filters, and the problems that would arise with an FFT filter implementation do not arise using their approach.

Consider, for example, a filter that implements a simple average over 128 sample points, using two different implementations.

FFT: In the FFT/convolution approach one would have a sample of, say, 256, points and convolve this with a wfm that is constant for the first half and goes to zero in the second half. The question here is (even after this system has run a few cycles), what determines the value of the first point of the result? The FFT assumes that the wfm is circular (i.e. infinitely periodic) so either: the first point of the result is determined by the last 127 (i.e. future) samples of the wfm (skipping over the middle of the wfm), or by 127 zeros if you zero-pad. Neither is correct.

FIR: Another approach is to implement the average with an FIR filter. For example, here one could use the average of the values in a 128 register FIFO queue. That is, as each sample point comes in, 1) put it in the queue, 2) dequeue the oldest item, 3) average all of the 128 items remaining in the queue; and this is your result for this sample point. This approach runs continuously, handling one point at a time, and returning the filtered result after each sample, and has none of the problems that occur from the FFT as it's applied to finite sample chunks. Each result is just the average of the current sample and the 127 samples that came before it.

The paper that OP cites takes an approach much more similar to the FIR filter than to the FFT filter (note though that the filter in the paper is more complicated, and the whole paper is basically an analysis of this filter.) See, for example, this free book which describes how to analyze and apply different filters, and note also that the Laplace approach to analysis of the FIR and IIR filters is quite similar what what's found in the cited paper.

Answer 3

I can shed some light to the reason why "windowing" is applied before FFT is applied.

As already pointed out the FFT assumes that we have a infinite signal. When we take a sample over a finite time T this is mathematically the equivalent of multiplying the signal with a rectangular function.

Multiplying in the time domain becomes convolution in the frequency domain. The frequency response of a rectangle is the sync function i.e. sin(x)/x. The x in the numerator is the kicker, because it dies down O(1/N).

If you have frequency components which are exactly multiples of 1/T this does not matter as the sync function is zero in all points except that frequency where it is 1.

However if you have a sine which fall between 2 points you will see the sync function sampled on the frequency point. It lloks like a magnified version of the sync function and the 'ghost' signals caused by the convolution die down with 1/N or 6dB/octave. If you have a signal 60db above the noise floor, you will not see the noise for 1000 frequencies left and right from your main signal, it will be swamped by the "skirts" of the sync function.

If you use a different time window you get a different frequency response, a cosine for example dies down with 1/x^2, there are specialized windows for different measurements. The Hanning window is often used as a general purpose window.

The point is that the rectangular window used when not applying any "windowing function" creates far worse artefacts than a well chosen window. i.e by "distorting" the time samples we get a much better picture in the frequency domain which closer resembles "reality", or rather the "reality" we expect and want to see.