So can this be done in Javascript?
type == 1 ? function1() : function2();
views:
93answers:
2
+5
A:
Yes, that's valid code. It will invoke either function1() or function2(), but not both - depending on the value of type.
Jon Skeet
2009-10-31 17:38:51
+1 It must be a slow day on SO when Jon Skeet and Ned Batchelder are answering JavaScript questions! :)
Andrew Hare
2009-10-31 17:56:00
And Scala - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1654664 :)
Jon Skeet
2009-10-31 18:08:37
Got to hit that rep-cap, whatever it takes :D
Andrew Hare
2009-10-31 18:10:08
+3
A:
It won't invoke two functions. It will invoke one of your two functions.
Ned Batchelder
2009-10-31 17:38:54