Hi,
Can I use the SQL-function getutcdate() from entity framework to set a date field in the database when saving an entity object?
regards Freddy
A:
You can't map directly to SQL built-in functions, but you can make EF calls to user-defined functions. Write a function that just returns GETUTCDATE(), then map to your user-defined function. I've done this before with SOUNDEX() (needed to select by soundex), and it worked out very nicely.
Jarrett Meyer
2009-12-11 13:20:11
You *can* map to functions in EF 4, but in this case you don't need do, because this one is already mapped, even in EF 1.
Craig Stuntz
2009-12-11 13:37:55
A:
Why wouldn't you set the property on the entity to the UTC date before saving it?
Alternatively you could use stored procedures for insert/update/delete of your entities. The stored procedure could perform this.
confusedGeek
2009-12-11 13:20:52
It isn't the same thing. Setting the property on the entity uses the app server's clock. Using `DateTime.UtcNow` uses the DB server's clock. The latter suggestion would work but is unnecessarily complicated for the problem at hand.
Craig Stuntz
2009-12-11 18:29:44
+3
A:
Yes, you can do this. The CLR function DateTime.UtcNow is mapped to the canonical function CurrentUtcDateTime, which should translate, for SQL Server to GETUTCDATE() or similar.
Craig Stuntz
2009-12-11 13:36:41