I'm working on a project which means customising an existing application (JasperServer 3.7.1) which is implemented in Spring 2.5.6 (plus a host of other Spring frameworks).
The application consists of a host of applicationContext*.xml containing the bean definitions which when wired together by Spring bring the app to life - I think it's a typical Spring app configuration as although it my first experience using Spring, it seems all quite well put together and follows a lot of the examples I have seen on the web and in books..
Because I'm actually modifying an existing application, changing beans like filterChainProxy (because we have our own security model ,for example) I'm wary of changing the actual config files that come with the product - instead, where possible, I'd prefer to add extra appContext config files to the existing ones which override existing beans (ie leave the original config in tact, as much as possible).
This I've managed to do by creating beans implementing BeanFactoryPostProcessor which on pre-bean initialisation allow me to change the existing property values/bean references to custom ones. This all seems to be working fine.
My query is, say I had a bean with a property that referred to another bean, and my overrider bean changed that reference to my own version of bean, will Spring still instantiate the bean that is no longer referred to ? The reason for asking obviously is that some of these unused beans may be taking up resources, which may be an unwanted overhead.
Thanks in advance