Is is possible to call a custom VB function, saved in the same Access Db, from a query written in that db, and if so, how?
Ok, here's the deal, Paul W.
I was trying to get this done before I asked the question and, upon reflection (not the .NET kind!) I think my question could have used a bit more elaboration.
When you answered (and I think your answer could have used a bit more elaboration too) it didn't seem different from what I'd tried, so I looked at my code again. I found a stupid bug that was preventing me from getting the result I was looking for. I've fixed it and everything's fine now.
So, in the end, I didn't ask the question that was really bothering me, and therefore you didn't give me the solution I was looking for. However, you did cause me to find the solution so I'd like to give you your props. However, I apparently don't have enough reputation (yet) to accept your answer or comment on it, so this reply will have to do. (I keep clicking on the checkmark but nothing happens.)