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Question

is there anything like (1==0 ? "no" : "yes") in javascript?

Answer 1

+18 A:

yes, exactly as you wrote it :)

Philippe Leybaert 2009-06-02 08:24:35

facepalm :P

annakata 2009-06-02 08:28:26

easiest 80 rep ever. ;) +1 make it 90.

Paolo Bergantino 2009-06-02 08:39:10

+1_____________Populist badge incoming.

antony.trupe 2009-06-03 04:07:35

Answer 2

+4 A:

Yes - it's the conditional operator, and the syntax is exactly as you've written it.

Jon Skeet 2009-06-02 08:25:45

Might want to check that link, Jon.

John Topley 2009-06-02 08:29:49

Thanks John - I think it was a case of hitting 'v' instead of Ctrl-V :)

Jon Skeet 2009-06-02 08:33:24

Jon, I've got no idea what you were (trying) to link to, I've added a link that is relevant.

Unkwntech 2009-06-02 08:33:29

Hmm looks like we edited it at the same time... and it looks like we may have linked to the same place....

Unkwntech 2009-06-02 08:34:44

Looks like it, yes :) Without the link it's a pointless answer, but hopefully with the link it's useful...

Jon Skeet 2009-06-02 08:35:43

Uh oh Jon Skeet answering a Javascript question? Get out of my turf, man! ;)

Paolo Bergantino 2009-06-02 08:38:47

@Paolo lol, I still laugh to myself when I see the one question where my answer came in higher then his.

Unkwntech 2009-06-02 09:26:32

The thing that bothers me is that it's technically the ternary operator, and even more technically, it's not an operator, it's a structure...

Antony Carthy 2009-06-02 09:49:21

@Antony: Unless JavaScript is different (and broken :) its name is the conditional operator and it's *a* ternary operator in the same way that / is *a* binary operator. ECMA-262 certainly calls it the conditional operator (see section 11.12).

Jon Skeet 2009-06-02 10:22:26

(It's a common fallacy in many languages to call the conditional operator "the ternary operator". Why talk about an operator in terms of its arity instead of its purpose? What happens if the language later gains *another* ternary operator?)

Jon Skeet 2009-06-02 10:23:41

Answer 3

+8 A:

JavaScript has the conditional operator, so it's perfectly legitimate to do:

var response = (1 == 0 ? "no" : "yes");

John Topley 2009-06-02 08:27:34

I'd refactor that to var response = "yes"; // :)

Philippe Leybaert 2009-06-02 08:30:17

Heh. I was future-proofing it for quantum computing where 1 is both 1 and 0 simultaneously! ;-)

John Topley 2009-06-02 08:34:23

Then you should've refactored it to var response = "yesno";

Philippe Leybaert 2009-06-03 21:03:51

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is there anything like (1==0 ? "no" : "yes") in javascript?

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