That's much clearer now, thank you.
Is it really SampleBean1
in both cases (e.g. entity itself and the OneToOne mapped property) or is it a typo? If they are the same, I'm pretty sure it's illegal (how do you imagine that mapping would work)? I'm a bit surprised it's quietly downgraded to "many-to-one" instead of throwing an error, but perhaps that's what Hibernate Annotations mapper does.
ChssPly76
2009-09-04 23:15:55