I have a stored procedure that search a view using full text.
I'm trying to map the results to an existing Entity (Sales
), where I mapped the column MivType
to SaleType
(as it makes more sense, and I want to keep db names away from my web site). The stored procedure is mapped to a Function Import, and I've defined its ReturnType to Sales
.
This work well as long as the entity has the same property names as fields names.
Here's my problem: when I change the property's name, I get the following error after running the imported function:
The data reader is incompatible with the specified 'Model.Sale'. A member of the type, 'SaleType', does not have a corresponding column in the data reader with the same name.
I can fix this if I change the property 'SaleType' to 'MivType' on the entity, but why should I do that? Isn't that what the mapping is for?
This means I have to use the exact same names on the stored procedure and the entity, so in effect, the mapping is ignored (I have names like YzrName
, MivYaad
, etc, and I don't like it).
Is there a simple way around this? I don't want to use the db names on my application, and prefer not to change the stored procedure...
(I should mention I'm a beginner with the EF, so this can be a rookie mistake)
Thanks.