Hey, the title is probably a bit off, so please correct it if you know how to put it better.
As a homework assignment I have been given several assignments along the following:
Let f(n) and g(n) be asymptotically positive functions. Prove or disprove each of the following conjectures.
a. f(n) = O(g(n)) implies g(n) = O(f(n))
Now, my real question is - how would you go about proving this in a formal way? I know that the above would be easy as I could easily provide a counter example to disprove it, but for the sake of the argument let's say that we want to do this without counter examples, as of course this continues on with some other examples where this will not work.
I am a bit stuck, I have the following inequalities written up (with <= being less than or equal to)
f(n) <= c1 * g(n)
g(n) <= c2 * f(n)
But I am uncertain of how I would combine these 2 inequations into a single (in)equation and disprove it. I am most certain that this is something quite easy that I have simply overlooked and that I am being rather stupid at the moment - but any pointers / concrete examples of how to do this would be great, so that I should be able to work the rest of these questions out on my own.