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76

answers:

1

I have an MVC2 app I developed with the VS2010 RC and the .NET 4.0 RC. My production server and my client's production server have .NET 4.0 RC.

Can the RTM of .NET 4.0 on a server support an app developed with the RC technologies?

What about the other way around? Can I use VS2010 RTM and deploy an app to production if the prod server is still no the .NET 4.0 RC?

Obviously it would be ideal to synch everything up to RTM but I don't have that option right now because the client doesn't have access to VS2010 RTM yet, and they would like to be able to open and build the project.

Update: Opening the solution in VS2010 RTM caused not a single change in any config file or solution/project file and of course not in the code. Building and deploying to my .NET 4 RC server worked totally fine.

A: 

RC and RTM didn't change too much. Give it a try, most likely it will run fine.

Update as per comment

Assembly versions should be the same. When I installed RTM on my dev machine, I didn't need to change assembly versions. I obviously can't tell you exactly what to expect as I can't see your code, but I'm confident that you shouldn't encounter any major issues.

Baddie
I figure the actual source code will work in either place, but I am concerned about assembly versions being slightly different.
Chris
Cool. I'll try it. VS2010 RTM is installing on my laptop now. I will see if I can open the solution, build it, and deploy the project to my server, which is still on the .NET 4.0 RC.
Chris
FYI - MVC 2 RTM should run just fine if bin-deployed on a production server that has installed the .NET 4 RC runtime. (This is how our own environments operated for some time.) However, if the production server has GACed an early preview of MVC 2, this will fail at runtime, as the GACed binary will win over the bin-deployed binary.
Levi
The MVC 1.0 RTM is GAC'd on that server, but MVC 2 apps have been bin-deployed so it sounds like I am golden.
Chris